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Primary 6 PSLE Science Life Cycles Quiz
Free P6 PSLE Science Life Cycles quiz, Kimi2.6 Exam version, with questions, answers, and PSLE-focused practice for Singapore students.
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Primary 6 PSLE Science Quiz - Life Cycles: Answer Key
Total Marks: 40
Section A: Multiple Choice (Questions 1–8)
| Question | Answer | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | B | Butterflies undergo complete metamorphosis: egg → larva (caterpillar) → pupa (chrysalis) → adult butterfly. This is the classic sequence students must memorise. |
| 2 | C | Ferns reproduce via spores, not seeds. The missing stage is the mature fern (sporophyte), which produces spores on its fronds. The cycle goes: spore → young fern (prothallus) → mature fern → spores. |
| 3 | B | The tadpole stage allows frogs to exploit aquatic habitats for food and shelter, reducing competition with adult frogs that live mainly on land. This is called resource partitioning across life stages. |
| 4 | A | Incomplete metamorphosis (A: egg → nymph → adult) has no pupa stage; the nymph resembles a small adult. Grasshoppers undergo this. Butterflies (B and D) show complete metamorphosis with larva and pupa stages. C shows direct development (no distinct juvenile stage). |
| 5 | B | Runners (stolons) are horizontal stems that grow along the ground surface, producing new plantlets at nodes. This is asexual reproduction—fast, produces genetically identical plants, and requires no seeds or pollination. |
| 6 | C | Sexual reproduction involves fusion of gametes from two parents, creating genetic variation through recombination and independent assortment. A is wrong (asexual = identical); B is wrong (asexual needs one parent); D is wrong (asexual uses no seeds). |
| 7 | B | Hatchlings are most vulnerable: they are small, slow-moving, must cross open beach to reach water, and face predators like birds, crabs, and foxes. While eggs are vulnerable, many predators cannot dig deep nests; adults are large and fast. |
| 8 | D | Grass is a flowering plant (angiosperm) that reproduces via seeds produced through pollination and fertilisation. Ferns, mushrooms (fungi), and mosses all produce spores. |
Section A Total: 8 marks
Section B: Structured Questions (Questions 9–16)
Question 9 [4 marks]
(a) Complete metamorphosis [1]
Key concept: Mosquitoes have four distinct life stages (egg, larva, pupa, adult) with very different body forms, unlike incomplete metamorphosis where the nymph resembles a small adult.
(b) The larva and pupa are aquatic stages [1] that have adapted to breathe dissolved oxygen in water (larva has a siphon, pupa has trumpets) [1]. The adult mosquito is terrestrial/aerial, so early stages require water for survival and development.
Marking note: Must mention water as essential habitat and some structural adaptation (siphon/trumpets/breathing) for full marks.
(c) Remove standing water / oil on water surface to suffocate larvae / clear drains / introduce larvae-eating fish [1]
Any reasonable method targeting egg, larva, or pupa stages accepted.
Q9 Total: 4
Question 10 [4 marks]
(a) Any two from: [2]
- Feathery/extended stigma to catch airborne pollen [1]
- Anthers hang outside flower to release pollen into wind [1]
- No colourful petals (not needed to attract insects) [1]
- Produces large amounts of light, smooth pollen [1]
(b) Insect-pollinated flowers have targeted delivery [1]: insects visit flowers specifically, carrying pollen directly to another flower of the same species. Wind-pollinated flowers rely on chance; most pollen is wasted [1], so they must produce much more to ensure some reaches the right target.
Concept: Pollination efficiency—biotic pollination is more precise than abiotic pollination.
Q10 Total: 4
Question 11 [3 marks]
(a) Animal B [1]
Reason: Gives birth to live young is characteristic of mammals [1] (or long development time suggests parental care typical of mammals).
Accept: Longest development time with most parental investment.
(b) Animal B [1]
Longest development time to adulthood (12 years) [1] indicates extended parental teaching, protection, and learning needed for complex survival skills / higher chance of reaching reproductive age [1].
Concept: K-selection: fewer offspring, more parental care, longer development.
Q11 Total: 3
Question 12 [4 marks]
(a) X = cotyledon(s) [1]; Y = endosperm (if present in diagram) OR accept two cotyledons as "food store structure" [1]
For bean (dicot): cotyledons are the food stores. If "endosperm" labelled, accept. Must name two distinct food-storing structures shown.
(b) Water is needed to activate enzymes [1] that digest stored food into soluble substances [1]. Also softens testa for radicle emergence.
Marking: enzyme activation essential; food mobilisation/digestion for second mark.
Q12 Total: 4
Question 13 [4 marks]
(a) No water means enzymes cannot function / metabolic processes cannot begin / food stores cannot be mobilised [1]
(b) Warm temperature is needed for germination [1]
(c) Seeds in Set 5 would still germinate [1] because light is not required for germination in most seeds (light needed only for some small seeds like lettuce); warmth, water and air are the essential three conditions [1].
Common error: Students think light is needed because plants need light for photosynthesis later, but germination itself is independent of light.
Q13 Total: 4
Question 14 [3 marks]
(a) Sporophyte is diploid (2n) [1]; spores are haploid (n) [1] — accept "sporophyte has double the number of chromosomes" for 1 mark.
Half mark if only state "2n" without explanation.
(b) Sperm (antherozoids) must swim in water [1] from antheridium to archegonium to fertilise the egg [1]. Dry conditions would prevent this; water allows flagellated sperm movement.
Concept: Ferns retain ancestral dependence on water for fertilisation, unlike seed plants with pollen tubes.
Q14 Total: 3
Question 15 [3 marks]
(a) Stamen / anther [1] (accept filament+anther; "stamen" alone acceptable)
(b) The pollen tube grows down the style [1] to deliver male gametes (nuclei) directly to the ovule / egg cell in the ovary [1], ensuring precise fertilisation without sperm needing to swim.
Q15 Total: 3
Question 16 [3 marks]
(a) As the number of offspring per reproduction increases, survival rate to adulthood decreases [1] (negative correlation / inverse relationship).
(b) Many offspring = r-selection strategy [1]: parents cannot care for all, so invest little energy per offspring; some will survive by chance in favourable conditions [1]. Few offspring = K-selection with heavy parental investment ensuring high survival.
Accept: Energy/resources are limited; cannot care for hundreds. Quantity traded against quality of care.
Q16 Total: 3
Section B Total: 20
Section C: Application and Reasoning (Questions 17–20)
Question 17 [4 marks]
(a) Bees are needed for cross-pollination [1]. Without bee visits, pollen may not reach other flowers / self-pollination may occur but seeds are not viable / fertilisation did not occur properly [1]. Tomato flowers are typically self-fertile but benefit from buzz pollination; total failure suggests pollination mechanism not triggered.
Alternative acceptable answer: Fruits can form through parthenocarpy or incomplete fertilisation (fruit without viable seeds); seeds need fertilisation (fusion of gametes) to develop.*
(b) Introduce bee-attracting plants nearby / hand-pollinate flowers using brush to transfer pollen between flowers [1]. This ensures cross-pollination leading to fertilisation and viable seed development [1].
Q17 Total: 4
Question 18 [4 marks]
(a) Frog eggs lack a protective shell [1]; they are covered only by jelly that allows water exchange but not pollution blocking. Land reptile eggs have leathery/ hard shells that reduce pollutant entry and gas exchange with cleaner air [1]. Tadpoles also breathe through permeable skin, absorbing pollutants directly from water [1] — any two points for 2 marks.
(b) Any two: [2]
- Frogs eat insects; decline allows insect population increase [1]
- Frogs are prey for snakes/birds; their decline reduces food for predators [1]
- Frogs occupy middle trophic level; removal disrupts energy flow through food web [1]
- Frogs control pest insect populations; agricultural pest damage may increase [1]
Q18 Total: 4
Question 19 [3 marks]
(a) Any one: [1]
- Faster growth / earlier harvest (no need to grow from seed)
- Genetically identical to parent with desired traits
- No need for pollination / can grow in greenhouse without insects
(b) All plants from seed potatoes are genetically identical (clones) [1]. If parent was susceptible to a disease, all offspring will lack resistance and entire crop could be destroyed simultaneously [1]. Genetic uniformity = no variation for natural selection to act upon.
Concept: Genetic diversity provides insurance against disease; monocultures are vulnerable.
Q19 Total: 3
Question 20 [5 marks]
(a) Any one: [1]
- Polyp can filter feed continuously in one productive location
- Corals of polyps can colonise and build reef structures
- Protected from predators and rough water conditions
- Asexual budding produces many new polyps in safe location
(b) Different forms exploit different niches/habitats [1]: polyp survives as sessile filter-feeder in stable locations; medusa disperses to find new habitats, mates, and escape local competition/predation [1]. This reduces intraspecific competition and spreads risk.
(c) They are same species because: [2]
- One life stage develops into the other in a continuous life cycle [1]
- They share identical DNA/genetic material (medusa buds off from polyp asexually; fertilised egg develops into both) [1]
- Can interbreed (medusa produces gametes that combine to form zygote developing into polyp) [1] — any two points.
Concept: Metamorphosis changes body form but not species identity; same genetic program expressed differently in each stage.
Q20 Total: 5
Section C Total: 12
Grand Total: 40 marks
Difficulty Distribution Summary
| Difficulty | Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Easy (direct recall) | 1, 2, 5, 8, 9a, 12a, 15a | 8 |
| Medium (application/explanation) | 3, 4, 6, 7, 10a, 11, 13, 14, 15b, 16, 19, 20a | 16 |
| Hard (synthesis/reasoning) | 9b, 9c, 10b, 12b, 17, 18, 20b, 20c | 16 |
Timing estimate: 40 minutes appropriate; 2 min/Q1–8, 3–4 min/Q9–16, 5–6 min/Q17–20, with 4 min review buffer.







